As I understand it a servitude is registered against a title deed, e.g. if you own property A and require access to X which is only reasonably accessed via property B then a servitude can be enacted to allow you access to X via B and is registered against the deed to A (i.e. your property).
Should you then sell A the servitude falls away and does not automatically pass on to the new owner.
If the above is correct, is there any circumstance where the servitude remains in effect - to your benefit - after having sold your property?
Cheers
